Two Compelling Reason Conclusion

 Why is that a reasonable conclusion? About the middle of the first century C.E., the disciple James said to the elders in Jerusalem: "Symeon has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name." (Acts 15:14) Does it sound logical to you that James would make such a statement if nobody in the first century knew God's name?

(2) When copies of the Septuagint were discovered that used the divine name rather than Ky'ri-os (Lord), it became evident to the translators that in Jesus' day copies of the earlier Scriptures in Greek-and of course those in Hebrew-did contain the divine name. 

Apparently, the God-dishonoring tradition of removing the divine name from Greek manuscripts developed only later. What do you think? Would Jesus and his apostles have promoted such a tradition? -MATTHEW 15:6-9. 

Next time: Call "on the name of Jehovah" 

From the jw.org publications